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If my website blah.example.com has an IP address of X.X.X.X, then can I have a URL that appears to be a subdirectory, such as blah.example.com/fizz, be mapped to a totally different IP address (say, Y.Y.Y.Y)?

If not, why? If so, how and what kindo of DNS configuration does this require?

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Can you explain why you want to do this, there are similar solutions you can do (redirect, virtual directories, ect...) that may work, but we need to know more about what you are trying to accomplish to be able to tell you which one will solve your underlying problem. –  Scott Chamberlain Jun 3 '13 at 19:58

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up vote 3 down vote accepted

No.

This is because the part that deals with IPs (DNS) does not know anything about the request URL.

When your web browser tries to go to blah.example.com/fizz, it first pings the DNS server and asks who blah.example.com is, and gets back X.X.X.X. It then asks X.X.X.X for /fizz.

The problem is the DNS server (which translates blah.exmaple.com into X.X.X.X) never hears about the /fizz part of the URL at all, so it cannot return a different IP for it.

It can return a different ip for a different subdomain, though:

     blah.example.com -> X.X.X.X
fizz.blah.example.com -> Y.Y.Y.Y
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