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I am currently trying to set up 2 routers in my home network, one of which is connected to a VPN to mask the IP of any device in its subnet as seen below:

enter image description here

The VPN is definitely set up correctly, as its redirecting all traffic (0.0.0.0), and connecting to it directly via a client does mask its IP. Unfortunately this does not work with devices in my 2nd routers network, which is connected to that VPN using OpenVPN.

There are no errors in the routers logs and the VPN logs correctly indicate a client connection, as far as I can tell but looking up my IP online returns my home IP address and not the VPNs.

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  • we need some more information about your network to understand your scenario. is the first router connecting to the second routers WAN? do you have hosts on both the first and second routers LANs or just one of them? how are you handling routing? do you want all hosts to use the VPN circuit as their default gateway? Jan 28, 2022 at 22:46
  • apologies for the delayed response. i think the arrows on the image might be a little misleading. the SECOND router (aka the one connected to a remote VPN) is connected to the WAN of the first router. I have hosts in both routers LANs but I want all hosts on the second routers LAN to use the VPN as their default gateway. In terms of routing, I have a default home router firewall with some exceptions but as far as I've understood, OpenVPN doesn't create issues with firewalls.
    – Mavial
    Feb 1, 2022 at 11:05

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